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DallasNE

(7,860 posts)

10. Yes, I Understand That

Sun Aug 17, 2025, 09:26 PM

Aug 17

Russia sells crude oil to India at a contracted price and the owner of the ship charges a transportation fee. The US is not directly a party to the transaction but they set a tariff price on the oil. But where in this transaction does the US get the leverage to make anyone pay this tariff? India pays Russia for the oil and the transportation company to ship it. Who pays the extortion (tariff)? That is what I don't understand, nor where the leverage comes from to make them pay the tariff.

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Highlight:

Trump rows back threat of 'secondary tariffs' against India and China after Putin summit [View all] BumRushDaShow Aug 17 OP

Pooty got the TACO back in line quickly BoRaGard Aug 17 #1

TACO TACOs. marble falls Aug 17 #2

WTF!! Were they having sex in that limo? mdbl Aug 17 #3

That Is The One Time Putin Would Come Up On The Short End Of The Stick. nt DallasNE Aug 17 #4

Yes. So much winning. (n/t) thesquanderer Aug 17 #7

I Couldn't Understand How Trump Could Collect The Secondary Tariffs. DallasNE Aug 17 #5

The primary tariffs on India WERE the secondary tariffs, on Russia. thesquanderer Aug 17 #8

Yes, I Understand That DallasNE Aug 17 #10

No, U.S. is not setting a tariff on the oil. The tariff would be on other goods coming from India to the U.S., thesquanderer Aug 17 #11

Good ole TACO Ray Bruns Aug 17 #6

Taco erpowers Aug 17 #9